de l'érection d'une pousée méchanique en désir.

English translation: refashioning a mechanical impetus as a desire

20:59 Jun 12, 2009
French to English translations [PRO]
Art/Literary - Philosophy / 19th century idealism
French term or phrase: de l'érection d'une pousée méchanique en désir.
context, partial: ---nous disons que la spontanéité causale apparente ou même la spontanéité causal réelle en admettant par impossible qu’il y en eut une dans un monde ou tout arriverait en vertu de la pure loi des causes, ne rendrait pas compte chez l’être conscient qu’en serait ou s’en croirait doué, de l’érection d’une poussée méchanique en désir.

My effort in context (I'm sure its wrong, but not sure 'how' wrong...help appreciated!)

Here we have the full Spinozistic explanation in all its force, and even a mechanistic explanation of desire. At present we are not trying to determine whether a conscious beings believe in its own spontaneity can be reduced, as easily and completely as philosophy seems to think, to a simple ignorance of the causes on which it depends as an individual—or from the Spinozistic viewpoint, so-called individual. In our view, the apparent causal spontaneity--or even the real causal spontaneity if there would be such a thing in the world where everything occurs by virtue of pure causal laws--would not would be grasped, by a conscious being endowed or believing himself endowed with it, as mechanical push of desire.

original: http://gallica.bnf.fr/ark:/12148/bpt6k860273.image.r=ex his ...

p. 285-6 of Hamelin's Elements Principaux de la Representation, available online at http://gallica.bnf.fr
S.J.
France
Local time: 17:44
English translation:refashioning a mechanical impetus as a desire
Explanation:
I think I prefer Susan's rearranging of the sentence and I agree with the meaning, this is just my stab. I don't see any play on words with "erection" here, but I do think it's important to keep a mechanical term for "poussée", so would avoid, eg. "impulse".

The author is arguing against the position that we perceive ourselves as having desires and natures through ignorance of the "full picture" of our causal make-up, ie that by being aware of only an isolated and decontextualised part of the causal chain we mistake it for our own will - and in this passage he is saying he doesn't see how a partial perception or awareness of a causal chain could be "turned into" a desire - just after this sentence he says: why would a causal series that has self awareness see itself as anything but a causal series?

"… we say that the apparent or even real causal spontaneity—if, per impossibile, there could be one in a world where everything happens according to the pure causal law—would not account for a conscious being endowed or believing itself to be endowed with such a causal spontaneity refashioning a mechanical impetus as a desire."

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Note added at 11 hrs (2009-06-13 08:57:38 GMT)
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I believe you are misreading the phrase "l’érection d’une poussée méchanique en désir" here - he issue is whether a "pousée mécanique" can be "reconstituted" ("erigé") as a "désir", and how such an act could be "accounted for" - how to "en rendre compte".

Coming at it from another angle, "mechanical push of desire" is an oxymoron: the debate is about how we perceive ourselves as having such things as desire in a mechanistic universe in which there would be no such thing. Spinoza's answer: through ignorance. This author: how does ignorance make perception of causes into experience of desire? How does it account for "l’érection d’une poussée méchanique en désir"?

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Note added at 12 hrs (2009-06-13 09:34:50 GMT)
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The key is also about "eriger ... en" - to set up as, to portray as. It's not a "poussée de désir", but "eriger la poussée EN désire"

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Note added at 12 hrs (2009-06-13 09:35:16 GMT)
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*désir*!

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Note added at 14 hrs (2009-06-13 11:39:02 GMT)
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The "Here we have the full Spinozistic explanation in all its force, and even a mechanistic explanation of desire." refers to the previous sentence, which follows the sentence posted in the other question: "Suppose now that this aggregate of causes appears to itself as isolated and independent: it would believe, so we are told, that it alone is the cause of everything that happens in it and this apparent spontaneity would transform causality into finality for it. There we have (Voilà) in its full force the Spinozist explanation of desire and even, in general, a mechanistic explanation of desire. Let's not even try to work out for the moment at least, in objection to Spinoza, whether the belief of a conscious being in its spontaneity can, as completely and easily as this philosopher believes, be reduced to a simple ignorance of the causes on which the individual (or the "so-called" individual from a Spinozist point of view), depends; we are saying that... (sentence ending with the phrase being discussed)."

So I read the "eriger la pousée mécanique en désir" as paralleling the "transforming causality into finality" referred to earlier.
Selected response from:

Melissa McMahon
Australia
Local time: 01:44
Grading comment
4 KudoZ points were awarded for this answer



Summary of answers provided
3 +1transformation (or erection) of a mechanical force into a desire
Susan Nicholls
3 +1refashioning a mechanical impetus as a desire
Melissa McMahon
2 +2... of elevating a mechanical impulse into a desire
Martin Cassell


Discussion entries: 3





  

Answers


2 hrs   confidence: Answerer confidence 3/5Answerer confidence 3/5 peer agreement (net): +1
transformation (or erection) of a mechanical force into a desire


Explanation:
Having looked at the text a little, I have the feeling that there are two things going on here. One is the use of terms from Spinoza (poussée méchanique), which your author is pretending to go along with for the sake of argument; the other is his use of terms like "erection" - something of a running metaphor from what I can see - to poke fun at the argument. Correct me if I am wrong because I can't pretend to have learned that much about it in the space of a few minutes. However, it might be easier to make more sense of it by removing the sexual metaphor (which could be reintroduced of course), to give something like:

In our view, apparent causal spontaneity--or even real causal spontaneity if there were such a thing in a world where everything occurs by virtue of pure causal laws-- could not explain the transformation (or erection) of a mechanical force into desire in any conscious being endowed or believing himself to be endowed with it.

Not sure whether it makes any more sense put this way.


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Note added at 11 hrs (2009-06-13 08:53:50 GMT)
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Perhaps "drive" rather than "force" for "pulsion". Think I am actually on the same track as Martin Cassell above, my only point was that I would be inclined to used terms common to Spinoza in translation rather than becoming fixated on the sexual overtones.

Susan Nicholls
Local time: 01:44
Does not meet criteria
Specializes in field
Native speaker of: Native in EnglishEnglish
Notes to answerer
Asker: Hi Susan, As I said in Melissa's thread, this is definitely going in the right direction....great intuition without having access to the full text! Thanks! (see full comment below).


Peer comments on this answer (and responses from the answerer)
agree  Melissa McMahon: Returning the favour - exact wording less important than general meaning, which I think we agree on
14 hrs
  -> Thank you, although I like "impetus".
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11 hrs   confidence: Answerer confidence 3/5Answerer confidence 3/5 peer agreement (net): +1
refashioning a mechanical impetus as a desire


Explanation:
I think I prefer Susan's rearranging of the sentence and I agree with the meaning, this is just my stab. I don't see any play on words with "erection" here, but I do think it's important to keep a mechanical term for "poussée", so would avoid, eg. "impulse".

The author is arguing against the position that we perceive ourselves as having desires and natures through ignorance of the "full picture" of our causal make-up, ie that by being aware of only an isolated and decontextualised part of the causal chain we mistake it for our own will - and in this passage he is saying he doesn't see how a partial perception or awareness of a causal chain could be "turned into" a desire - just after this sentence he says: why would a causal series that has self awareness see itself as anything but a causal series?

"… we say that the apparent or even real causal spontaneity—if, per impossibile, there could be one in a world where everything happens according to the pure causal law—would not account for a conscious being endowed or believing itself to be endowed with such a causal spontaneity refashioning a mechanical impetus as a desire."

--------------------------------------------------
Note added at 11 hrs (2009-06-13 08:57:38 GMT)
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I believe you are misreading the phrase "l’érection d’une poussée méchanique en désir" here - he issue is whether a "pousée mécanique" can be "reconstituted" ("erigé") as a "désir", and how such an act could be "accounted for" - how to "en rendre compte".

Coming at it from another angle, "mechanical push of desire" is an oxymoron: the debate is about how we perceive ourselves as having such things as desire in a mechanistic universe in which there would be no such thing. Spinoza's answer: through ignorance. This author: how does ignorance make perception of causes into experience of desire? How does it account for "l’érection d’une poussée méchanique en désir"?

--------------------------------------------------
Note added at 12 hrs (2009-06-13 09:34:50 GMT)
--------------------------------------------------

The key is also about "eriger ... en" - to set up as, to portray as. It's not a "poussée de désir", but "eriger la poussée EN désire"

--------------------------------------------------
Note added at 12 hrs (2009-06-13 09:35:16 GMT)
--------------------------------------------------

*désir*!

--------------------------------------------------
Note added at 14 hrs (2009-06-13 11:39:02 GMT)
--------------------------------------------------

The "Here we have the full Spinozistic explanation in all its force, and even a mechanistic explanation of desire." refers to the previous sentence, which follows the sentence posted in the other question: "Suppose now that this aggregate of causes appears to itself as isolated and independent: it would believe, so we are told, that it alone is the cause of everything that happens in it and this apparent spontaneity would transform causality into finality for it. There we have (Voilà) in its full force the Spinozist explanation of desire and even, in general, a mechanistic explanation of desire. Let's not even try to work out for the moment at least, in objection to Spinoza, whether the belief of a conscious being in its spontaneity can, as completely and easily as this philosopher believes, be reduced to a simple ignorance of the causes on which the individual (or the "so-called" individual from a Spinozist point of view), depends; we are saying that... (sentence ending with the phrase being discussed)."

So I read the "eriger la pousée mécanique en désir" as paralleling the "transforming causality into finality" referred to earlier.

Melissa McMahon
Australia
Local time: 01:44
Does not meet criteria
Specializes in field
Native speaker of: English
PRO pts in category: 86
Notes to answerer
Asker: Hello everyone! Wonderful work! I'm a little embarrassed at how much discussion these little words have generated...let's take stock and pull the plug on it, I need you all to please save your brain energy for future questions. Thanks to each one of you for the excellent propositions and intense discussion; each answer was useful in its way and if I could divide the points I would. Since this isn't done, I'd like to first thank you individually, then explain my choice of answer. I appreciate Martin's sympathetic characterisation of the 'horrible' text (indeed!) and the nuances of his etymological variations. Thank you to Susan for giving it a kick in the right direction; good intuition indeed. Helen provided impressive research on Spinoza, indeed relevant and quite correct. I'm sorry that not having access to the whole text kept you from the rest of Hamelin's train of thought (I hope it wasn't my page typo that prevented you, if so, terribly sorry! Won't ever happen again). Thus question is more about Hamelin's use of Spinoza as a foil, as was mentioned. Melissa tracked down the original text in spite of my typo (a mistake I promise will never happen again! ) and then gave what appears to me a unusually lucid philosophical summary of Hamelin's convoluted thought at this point; explaining how the sentence in question reflects and encapsulated the ideas leading up to it. I won't try and rephrase it, she's spot on. Now, even since I drafted this note, others have weighed in!! So I might even be wrong in my choice...and for that reason I will save this discussion and make sure that the final editor/publisher gets a good look at all suggestions. Meanwhile, let's turn the page... Merci encore a tous.


Peer comments on this answer (and responses from the answerer)
neutral  Helen Shiner: Sorry, but I really do disagree with 'refashioning' - see notes and links added to my posting. There seems to be a fundamental misunderstanding of Spinoza here.//Hamelin is presumably attempting a revision of S, perhaps trying to regain agency for human
31 mins
  -> I think reading the whole original pages helps see what the issue is - its the author reading of Spinoza that may be right or wrong./Something like that: it is an old text and more like a caricature of spinozism than Spinoza

agree  Susan Nicholls
3 hrs
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42 mins   confidence: Answerer confidence 2/5Answerer confidence 2/5 peer agreement (net): +2
... of elevating a mechanical impulse into a desire


Explanation:
the sentence is horribly long and deep, I really haven't disentangled it all: but I think the final point relates to a supposed difference between sentient and non-sentient beings, and particularly that sentient beings can raise a mere mechanical (unconscious?) impulse into the realm of consciousness, where it is perceived as a desire.

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Note added at 1 hr (2009-06-12 22:49:03 GMT)
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asker is clearly (one would hope!) in a better position to decipher exact meanings; my main point is to suggest that interpreting the term given hinges on reading it as a variation of « ériger ~~~ en ~~~ », "to raise ~~~ to the status of ~~~", "to set ~~~ up as ~~~"

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Note added at 2 days14 hrs (2009-06-15 11:28:24 GMT)
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S.J., no worries; glad if it helped!

Martin Cassell
United Kingdom
Local time: 16:44
Does not meet criteria
Native speaker of: English
Notes to answerer
Asker: Hi Martin, I so appreciate all your wise suggestions; and all of them seem to be on the right track. I have to go with Melissa's response as really clarifying everything in context, but if I could share the points I would. (full explanation on her thread)


Peer comments on this answer (and responses from the answerer)
neutral  Helen Shiner: You may well be on to something, but why l'érection and not l'élèvation? Also I'm not sure about the comparison between sentient and non-sentient beings. I haven't seen enough of the text. Maybe in discussing the nature of consciousness, it is implicit.
16 mins
  -> yes, I'm not quite sure who is actually raising impulses to the status of desires here

agree  Sandra & Kenneth Grossman: Simple causal awareness (as Spinoza suggests and the author refutes)... would not make an individual having such awareness, perceive a mechanical urge elevated as desire
10 hrs
  -> thanks Sangro

agree  Ben Hadley: I like "to the status of". Hamelin is saying that Spinoza's concept of "spontaneous causality" cannot account for the fact that we perceive these mechanistic impulses as desires, even if they were mechanistic impulses.
14 hrs
  -> thanks Ben
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