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Why do so many languages not use the verb "to be" when talking about being hot/cold?
Thread poster: Thomas Seligmann
Lingua 5B
Lingua 5B  Identity Verified
Bosnia and Herzegovina
Local time: 01:11
Member (2009)
English to Croatian
+ ...
Linguistics vs. dialectics Mar 31, 2016

Honestly, what is the semantic difference between:

1. It is cold.

2. I am cold.

In the example No 1, isn't it implied that you are cold if it's cold?

In my language we would say:

It is cold = Hladno je.

Now the OP will ask why there is no dummy subject IT in the Croatian sentence. Well, our sentences can function without a subject, unlike English.
 
Heinrich Pesch
Heinrich Pesch  Identity Verified
Finland
Local time: 02:11
Member (2003)
Finnish to German
+ ...
Also here Apr 1, 2016

Tom in London wrote:

Michal Fabian wrote:

...is why English uses 'to be' in such constructions. English is the odd one out here


The new problem in the use of English by television news reporters is their elimination of the verb "to be" and its replacement with the present participle (only) of any verb, for example

Instead of saying "dozens of people were injured"

- now they say

"dozens of people injured"

or instead of saying "the Prime Minister will be chairing a meeting tomorrow"

- they say

"the Prime Minister chairing a meeting tomorrow"

- and so on. I have no idea why or when the TV reporters decided to start talking in this strange way. Nobody talks that way in real life. I find myself shouting the correct English at the television!

[Edited at 2016-03-31 14:12 GMT]


A few years ago I noticed Finnish journalists omitting the be-verb and also the negation verb (Finnish uses a verb for negations). The sentences are understandable but feel odd. But after all the Russians have managed without the "be" since ages. Eto normalno!
 
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Why do so many languages not use the verb "to be" when talking about being hot/cold?






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